IQ No. |
Inquiry Subject |
Inquiry Highlight |
IQ-01 |
Alpha and Omega
(Revelation 1:8 and Revelation
22:12-16)
Lord of Lords;
King of Kings
(1Timothy 6:15 and
Rev. 17:14) |
I WONDER HOW on earth you could teach that
Jesus Christ is a "mere man," when the verses in the Bible clearly
reveal that He has the same names and titles as God the Father.
Revelation 1:8 for instances states that the Almighty God is "Alpha
and Omega" and in chapter 22 verses 12 to 16 of the same book,
Christ is also designated as "Alpha and Omega." Aside from that the
titles "Lords of Lords" and King of Kings" which are attributed to
the Father (I Tim. 6:15) are also ascribed to Christ
(Rev. 17:14). Doesn't all of these show that Christ is God?
Emil S. Rabanal, Georgetown, Grand Cayman Islands
Click here to
read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-13 |
"He was before me" John 1:30
"before Abraham was I AM"
John 8:58 |
I HAVE ALWAYS believed, in fact so did my parents and
grandparents, that Christ is God. One of the proofs of His deity
is that He already existed even before the foundation of the
world. I understand that you do not believe in the pre-existence
of Christ. But, if Christ did not already exist before, then why
did John the Baptist say in John 1:30, "He was before me''?
Moreover, in John 8:58 Christ Himself said "... before Abraham
was I AM" (NKJV). How do you explain these two verses?
James Hartnett,
Elizabeth, New Jersey, U.S.A
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-14 |
Emperor Constantine
and the Council of Nicaea in 325 A.D., about the divinity of Christ. |
I CAME ACROSS your magazine "Pasugo" (December
2003 issue) while I was in the lobby of my dentist's office. I
became curious and started to
browse the contents. I became particularly
interested in the article on page 16 where on it you quoted from
a book entitled Challenge of a Liberal Faith,/em> p* 60. The
quote is as follows: "The Council could not agree and after two years,
impatient at the delay the Emperor Constantine appeared and
addressed the assembly; ordering them to agree on the divinity of
Christ ...."
Noelle de Leon, San Francisco, California, U.S.A.
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-15 |
Things not
written as proof of Christ's pre-existence.
(John 21:25) |
SAINT JOHN, IN the penultimate verse of his
gospel, wrote that there are many other things which the Lord Jesus
did, which if they are written one by one, the world cannot contain
the books that should be written. I take these words as proof of Christ's
pre-existence. Am I wrong?
Eduardo L Paragas, Dagupan City, Philippines
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-20 |
Why
worship Jesus
Christ
if He is not God?
Philippians 2:10-11 |
MAY I ASK if Felix Y. Manalo had a teaching
that Christ should be worshiped? If he had, what are the
biblical bases of this teaching?
Allan Poe Bona Redona, rallanpoe@yahoo.com
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-23 |
Did Christ say to the Father
"We are one" God? John 17:22 |
MUST ADMIT I'm
just a beginner in studying the teachings of the Bible. . . . .
. However, there are verses in the Bible which I honestly
don't understand, or which confuse me. For instance,
though I originally believe that the Father is different
from the Son, there are nevertheless biblical verses which
seem to teach otherwise. In John 17:22, for example, Christ said
to the Father, "We are one." Doesn't it teach that the Father
and the Son are one and the same?
Franz Merkl, Frankfurt, Germany
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-24 |
Is Jesus Christ the Creator?
(by Him all things were created) Colossians
1:16 |
IT IS COMMON knowledge in religious
parlance that one of the essential! characteristics of
being God is being the Creator of all things. No less than the
Bible itself proves that Jesus Christ created the world and we
can read that in Colossians 1:16. So how can you reconcile your
teaching that Christ is not God and the fact that He created all
things?
Albert Fugard, King Williams Town, South Africa
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-28 |
Did Christ became God
or attained His divinity when He reached heaven? |
WE, AS TRUE
CHRISTIANS, accept and believe in the verses of the Bible that
you quote stating that Christ is man. However, it is very
significant that the context and background of those verses be
considered. In John 8:40, when Christ introduced Himself as man.
He was still on earth. There is no question about that. What we
are saying is that Christ became God or attained His divinity
when He reached heaven.
Charles Garrett, New Your, USA
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-30 |
Did the Father really call the Son
"God" (Your throne, O God) in Hebrews 1:8?
|
AS A LAYPERSON who is trying his best to be
objective by comparing the doctrines of different Christian
denominations, I personally believe that the most compelling reason
to believe that Christ is God is, if it's true, that He is called
God by the Bible. To affirm this, one author even asserts that no
less than the Father Himself called Jesus "God" and submits Hebrews
1:8 as the proof. I consulted different versions of the Bible
but was confused for they are not united in their rendition of the
verse as to whether the one referred to as God is Jesus Christ or
someone else. So I want to hear from the Church of Christ (Iglesia
ni Cristo), did the Father really call the Son
"God" in Hebrews 1:8?
Ken Yamazaki, Hokkaido, Japan
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-31 |
Divinity, pre-existence,
incarnation of Jesus Christ?
John 1:1, 14 |
AMONG THE FOUR Gospels, that of John is the most
explicit in teaching about the deity of Christ. Its very first
statement (John 1:1) provides the key to the correct
understanding of the Lord's true state
of being: that He is God
("and the Word was God, and that He
pre-existed with God the Father ("in the
beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God"). Verse 14
reveals another truth about Him: that God
took on a human nature and
became a real human being
like you and me ("And
the Word became flesh and dwelt among us"). Why is it
that your religion does not teach these three basic doctrines
(divinity pre-existence, incarnation) about Christ?
Ephraim Rifkin,
Denver, Colorado, USA
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-33 |
Is Jesus Christ God
just because Thomas exclaimed "My Lord and MY GOD"
?
John 20:28 |
HOW CAN YOU say that Jesus Christ is not God
when Thomas, an apostle of Christ, clearly called Him God. In
John 20:28 we can read, "And Thomas answered and
said to Him, 'My Lord and MY GOD!"" Doesn't the pronoun ''Him" refer
to Christ? Clearly, Thomas
referred to Christ as God because He is God.
Ian Parks,
Madison Wisconsin, USA
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-35 |
Is Jesus Christ God or
"Mighty God"?
Isaiah 9:6 |
ALMOST ALL OF the
articles I've read proving the divinity of Christ
mention Isaiah 9:6, a verse which prophesies about "a Child."
Accordingly the Child referred to in this verse which also
mentions about the "Mighty God" is none other than the Son or
Jesus Christ. Does the Iglesia ni Cristo deny that Christ is the
fulfillment of this prophecy? If not, why not
teach that He is the "Mighty God"?
David Koch, Geneva, Illinois, USA
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-36 |
Is Jesus Christ
"the true God"?
1 John 5:20 |
AS FAR AS what I learned
from school is concerned, the English
word "the" is a definite
article and is used when it is obvious which one is being
referred to because there is only one, as in
"the sun", "the US President", etc. Now, no
less an authority than the Bible teaches that Christ
is, to quote it from I John 5:20, "the
true God". So, honestly, I find it
perplexing and odd to find out from a relative who is a member
of your Church that you do not recognize Jesus as God.
Jan Peter Deken,
Dordrecht, Netherlands
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-37 |
Is Jesus is the one and only
true God in
Deuteronomy 6:4;
Is Jesus Christ God because he
was manifested in the flesh? Timothy 3:16;
Is Jesus our great God and Savior in
Titus 2:13?;
Did Jesus reveal himself to be God in
Matthew 4:7 |
I KNOW THAT every now and then you
scan the Holy Bible, but unfortunately you do not
understand what the Scriptures mean, like Deuteronomy 6:4
where it is stated that Jesus is our one and only true God. You
are only referring to your very own verses. There are other
verses clearly stating that Jesus is the one and only true God,
such as the following; 1 Timothy 3:16 clearly shows God
was manifested in the flesh. Now, who was manifested in the
flesh? Of course, none other than Jesus Christ. He considered
Himself as a man just to fulfill His promise to save the world
from sins. But in Him the whole fullness of
deity dwells bodily (Colossians 2:9). So He is the God who
was manifested in the flesh; . Titus 2:13 also
clearly states that Jesus is our great God and our Savior.
What are you looking for? Jesus is our God and our Savior. No
one can save us except Jesus Christ.
In Matthew 3:7 Jesus revealed himself to be God when He said to
Satan ".....you shall not tempt the Lord your God."
Did Jesus He to Satan? Absolutely no!
Jesus is perfect. See? With these few; verses
alone I can assure you and it is clear that Jesus Christ is our
God.
Junjun Lanoy,
Surigao del Norte, Philippines
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-38 |
Is Jesus Christ God because He was
spiritually conceived? (Matthew
1:20) |
HONESTLY, I'M SURPRISED to find out
that Iglesia ni Cristo dismisses the Christ-is-God doctrine as being
(allegedly) unbiblical. So instead, it teaches that
Christ is a man, and even "purely human" tor that matter.
But does it not blatantly run contrary to the biblical fact that
Jesus was not conceived in a natural, human way (referring to sexual
union between a husband and wife)? If Christ
was spiritually conceived (Matthew 1:20), why teach that He is purely human
or without spirit?
David Williams,
Auckland, New Zealand
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-39 |
Does John 1:14 and
Philippians 2:6-8 reveal the
incarnation of Jesus Christ? |
THE BIBLE EXPLICITLY says that God is the
Savior, I Tim. 2:3. In your denial of the Godship of Christ you have
a pseudo-savior. I Tim:2:5 explicitly states that Jesus Christ
is a mediator not savior. It is Jesus Christ, God
Incarnate, true God and true man who is and no one else.
Your insistence that Jesus Christ is only a man and is
devoid of divinity is practically denying the veracity of a basic
biblical truth—the Incarnation as revealed in Jn.
1:14 and Philippians - 2:6-8. Except for the
Iglesia ni Cristo, Christendom believes that Jesus Christ is true
God and true man because he is God Incarnate. In denying this
you have made liars of John and Paul and since their lies appear in
the New Testament this is tantamount to saying that the Holy Bible,
the Iglesia ni Cristo's sole rule of faith is tainted with
lies.
Lutgardo P. Alquiros,
Lucena City, Philippines
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question.
|
IQ-40 |
Clarifying the
only Lord Jesus Christ
(1 Cor. 8:6; Acts 2:36); and the
only Lord God (Mark
12:29; John 17:1,3);
The Lord said to my Lord
(Matthew 22:24) |
I AM REACTING to the statement that
the Church of Christ (Iglesia ni Cristo) recognizes Jesus Christ
as the "only one Lord" (Feljun B. Fuentes, "Some Misconceptions About Iglesia Ni
Cristo Unity," Pasugo, March-April 1992, p.5).
I notice that this statement is against the
teachings of Jesus Christ who told us that "the Lord our God is the
only Lord" (Mark 12:29, TEV). How could you explain this
inconsistency between the Iglesia ni Cristo and Christ's teachings
in the Gospels? Dennis M. Fermace,
Quezon City, Philippines
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-55 |
Did Jesus Christ say
"I and the Father are one"
God?
John 10:30 |
IN JOHN 10:30 Jesus said, "I My Father are
one." According to your Church this statement means that
Jesus and the Father are one in their work. But if we examine the
verse, we can see that Christ's statement "I and My Father are one"
ends with a period after the word "one." There is no mention
in the verse about being one in their work If we examine the
sentence grammatically in the statement, "I and My Father are one",
"are" is a linking verb plural; the phrase "I and the Father" is the
subject of the sentence; "I" (the pronoun stated by Jesus) and
the noun "Father" are both in the nominative case; the phrase ''are
one" is a predicate; and "and" is a connective used to join or
connect both Jesus and the Father with equal class or category.
Therefore, what Is being referred to in John 10:30 is that Jesus and
the Father are one in being Persons of the one God, namely they are
God the Father and God the Son.
Furthermore, notice the succeeding verses (John 10:31-36). After
Jesus made His statement in John 10:30, the Jews wanted to stone Him
and accused Him of blasphemy. When Jesus asked why they wanted
to stone Him, they answered because He was a man that was making
Himself God. Therefore, they didn't believe He was God because He
was a man. So who is the real blasphemer? Jesus who is saying that
He is God or the who only believe that Jesus is only a man?
Jaime Francisco,
Arayat, Pampanga, Philippines
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question.
|
IQ-57 |
Did Christ
claim that He was the Father? John 14:7-11 |
I BELIEVE IN your teaching that Christ is man.
However, He is also God because He claimed that He was the Father
(John 14:7-11). Also, then were times when God became man (Isaiah
42:13; Exodus 15:3).
Johnstiff B. Malnegro,
Davao City, Philippines
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question.
|
IQ-65 |
".... that spiritual Rock that
followed them"
(1 Corinthians 10:1-4) |
THE APOSTLE PAUL has this teaching
regarding Christ which I humbly believe you should consider in evaluating your doctrines about the Lord
Jesus Christ:
"Moreover, brethren,
I do not want you to be unaware that all our fathers were under the
cloud, all passed through the sea,
all were baptized
into Moses in the cloud and in the sea,
all ate the same
spiritual food,
and all drank the
same spiritual drink. For they drank of that spiritual Rock that
followed them, and that Rock was Christ."
(1 Corinthians 10:1-4, New
King James Version)
Doesn't it evidently prove that Christ was already
existing during Moses' time? This I humbly suppose, directly
disagrees with your teaching that Jesus has no pre-existence and
that He is not God.
Robert Hines,
Ontario, Canada
(in progress)
|
IQ-67 |
Is Jesus Christ an ordinary man? |
I HEARD THAT the Iglesia ni Cristo teaches that
Jesus Christ is not God. Is this true? If Jesus Christ
is not God, then who is He? Is He ordinary man?
Crispin C. Cedeno,
Cebu, Philippines
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-68 |
Christ is not a
man?
(1 Kings 8:46; Ecclesiastes 7:20) |
I WAS WATCHING TV the other night and came across
a channel where a preacher was teaching something I found rather
strange. He said that Christ is not a man and tried to prove this by
using 1 Kings 8:46 and Ecclesiastes 7:20. He said
that these verses say that there is no man who has not sinned, and
since Christ did not sin, he concluded that Christ is not a man. He
had similar arguments along this line. Is he correct in saying that
Christ is not a man?
Eliazar Santos,
Quiapo, Manila, Philippines
(in progress) |
IQ-69 |
"... the glory that I had with
you"
(John 17:5) |
I STILL CANT understand why the Church of Christ
utterly denies Christ's pre-existence when the Savior Himself taught
that He existed with the Father even before the world was made. In
one of His prayers to the Father, Christ said,
"... glorify thou me in thy own presence
with the glory which I had with thee before
the world was made" (John 1 7:5, emphasis added). Kindly notice the
verb used ("had") which is in the past tense form and the point in
time referred to ("before the world was made"). Isn't it
obvious that Jesus had preexistence? Doesn't it prove also that
Christ is indeed God?
Leonard Woo,
Seattle, Washington, U.S.A.
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question. |
IQ-70 |
Is Jesus Christ
still a man in heaven, or is he already a spirit in nature? |
THE FIRST LETTER of Timothy (2:5) states that
Jesus Christ is man who is the mediator between men and God, the
Father. According to the Bible, when Jesus had risen from the dead
He said that he would go up to heaven to eventually sit at the right
hand of the Lord God.
Is Jesus Christ who is now in heaven with the
Father still a human being? Or is He already spirit in nature?
Rolando Romero,
Ilocos Norte, Philippines
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question.
|
IQ-71 |
Extraordinary creation of man |
I AM AN avid reader of your magazine I get my
copies from neighbors who are members of your Church, .However, I
disagree with your teaching that Christ is man. How can this be
true, when Christ is not a product or result of the fertilization of
the cell?
Kate Ruiz,
Las Pinas, Philippines
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question.
|
IQ-74 |
Redeemed by a
sinners blood? |
I BELONG TO a group which teaches that it is
enough to believe in the Lord Jesus Christ in order to be saved.
I wrote for clarification about your doctrines because there is so
much confusion these days resulting in the rise of many religions
with different teachings. My questions are as follows:
1. Jesus said "I will build my Church" (Mt 16:18). This Church,
according to one of your members is the Iglesia Cristo. As I have
known, your founder was Felix Manalo. If this is the case, then your
Church is false because there would be two persons who built it. Who
really built your Church, the Lord Jesus Christ or Felix Manalo?
2, You believe that Christ is only a man and not God. In Romans 3:4
it says "Let God be true, and but every man a liar," If
Christ is only a man, then He is a liar. What a blasphemy!
Jesus is the Way and the Savior, but how could a liar save?
The blood of Jesus would be a sinner's blood if He is only a man.
Acts 20:28 (Lamsa) states that the Church of Christ was purchased by
His own blood. Are you claiming then that your Church was
purchased by a sinner's blood?
Marlon Trumpo,
Apayao, Philippines
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question.
|
IQ-90 |
Christ - the
very first in God's plan of Creation |
IN ONE CORNER of our ship (I am serving on-board a
bulk ship), I found a copy of Pasugo magazine. I was overwhelmed
with the teachings it contains which are convincing and biblically
true.
I wrote to ask for your explanation of the verse John 1:30 where
John the Baptist said that "A man is coming after me, but he is
greater than I am, because he existed before I was born" (TEV).
Also, please explain John 8:58 where Christ said that "...before
Abraham was, I AM (NKJV)."
Eric C. Lucena,
MV Robert Stove
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question.
|
IQ-131 |
How can Christ
be a man? |
I HAVE BEEN reading your magazine for quite some
time through the tireless efforts of my - friend who gives me any
issue that she can. I'm in search of the true religion and ever
since my first visit to one of your locales, I have begun to
seriously research on your doctrines because I find them very
different from the other religions I have come across in the past.
Your faith enlightens me in a way that I have not felt before.
I would like to know how Christ can be man when Matthew 1:18-24
states that the Lord Jesus was created by God through the Holy
Spirit.
Lestat de Lioncourt,
Bite@metallicafan.com
Click here to read the full Answer to the Question.
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